1 Corinthians 9:11
Back to: Historical Christology
Yehovah & Jesus
1. Jesus as Creator
Argument against: God Created through Jesus.
Scripture Which Refutes this Argument:
Isaiah 44:24 "Thus says Yehovah-your-Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb, ĎI, Yehovah, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself, and spreading out the earth all alone.í"
Yehovah also calls himself here our redeemer which Jesus claimed about Himself. Jesus is God.
2. Jesus is Emanuel "God with us" a description of who He is, not a name.
Answer: The name Emanuel is not a name given to Jesus, he is never addressed as Emanuel, but describes who He is: God with us.
3. Jesus is Mighty-God
Argument against: Isaiah 9:6 Jesus is called "Mighty-God" but not "Almighty God." Thus He is not equal to the Father.
Answer: Yehovah is called "Mighty-God" in Isaiah 10:21 and Jer 32:17. Further, only the Father and Son are ever given this title.
4. God the Son prayed to God the Father.
Argument against: Matthew 14:23 When Jesus prays it does not indicate He is a distinct Person from God. Jesusí divine nature is praying to His human nature.
Answer: How does a nature talk to a nature? People talk to people. In this case, Jesus, the second Person of the Trinity, is communing with the Father, the first Person of the Trinity. Matthew 26:42 makes this clear: "He went away again a second time and prayed, saying, ĎMy Father, if this cannot pass away unless I drink it, Your will be done.í"
5. Jesus is God the Word.
Argument against: The phrase "the Word was with God" does not mean the Son and the Father are distinct. "Word,"lovgo",68 simply means "something said" and refers to God speaking in creation "In the beginning" ó Genesis 1:1, 3.
Answer: The word "with,"pro",67 means "to, towards" when used with the accusative as it is here (Thayer, p.541). The word is generally translated "to" or "toward" (NKJV) or "unto" (KJV). So this phrase cannot be referring to "something said" coming from God. Also, in the first phrase of this verse "was" (Gr. en) is imperfect. This verbal form indicates the Word was existing before creation began.63/217 So it cannot refer to "something said" during the creation period.
Logos has a wide variety of meanings in the NT. The exact meaning is determined by context. Given the above, plus the use of the definitive article ("the"), something more than just "something said" is being referred to.
Argument against: John 1:1 The second "God" doesnít have the definite article "the", so it must be translated "a god."
Answer: "God" in John 1:6,12,13 doesnít have the article but it is not translated "a god" in these verses. The grammar is "emphasizing quality, the Word had the same nature as God".63/217
6. John 5:18 Jesus claimed to be God.
Argument against: Jesus isnít claiming Deity here; the Jews misunderstood Him.
Answer: when John 3:16 states that Jesus is the only Son of God, it means just that, that He is of the essence of God, God Himself. Jesus was a Jew talking to Jews in their language and customs. They understood Him clearly to claim to be of the essence of God, God Himself. "Therefore the Jews sought all the more to kill Him, because He ... said God was His own Father making Himself equal to God."
7. Jesus is Yehovah,hw:hoy“,65 !Egwv Eijmi, "I Am."
Argument against: John 8:58 "I Am" should be rendered, "I have been." And in Exod 3:14 (in the LXX) the text actually reads "I Am the Being" not just "I Am."
8. Jesus and the Father are of one essence.
Argument against: John 10:30 "I and the Father are one" only indicates they are one in agreement or purpose, not essence as is the case in John 17:20-23.
Answer: See discussion of John 10:22-42 in Section 3 Chapter 3 on the Deity of Jesus.
9. Jesus is Lord and God.
Argument against: John 20:28 Thomasí saying "my Lord and my God" is simply an exclamation.
Answer: The text specifically reads Thomas, "said to Him." Also in a Jewish society, it would be blasphemy to use the words "Lord" and "God" in such a manner.
10. The Holy Spirit is a person of the Godhead.
Argument against: Acts 13:1-5 When the Holy Spirit is referred to in personal terms it is only personification.
Answer: Personification is poetic language. It is often used in poetry and personal conversations, but not in historical accounts. See also Acts 1:16; 5:3,32; 8:28; 9:31; 10:19; 11:12; 15:28; 16:6f; 20:23,28; 21:11.
11. Jesus is King of kings, 1Timothy 6:15; Revelation 17:14; 19:16.
Argument against: In Dan 2:37 Nebuchadnezzar is called "king of kings." So Jesus and God both being called by this title doesnít mean Jesus is God.
Answer: Nebuchadnezzar claimed to be king of kings, but God made it plain to Him in Daniel 4:28-35 that He and he alone is Most-High,h;aL;[I,64 over all the realm of the earth. By definition there can be only one "King of kings."
12. Jesus is God and Savior.
Argument against: Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1 "God" and "Savior" refer to two different Persons, not just to Jesus.
Answer: In 2 Peter 1:11; 2:20; 3:18 "Lord" and "Savior" both refer to Jesus and the grammatical construction is identical except "Lord" is substituted for "God."
13. Jesus is the Alpha & the Omega, the First and Last.
Argument against: Revelation 1:18 The Father is speaking.
Answer: 1:7,11-18 demonstrates clearly that Jesus is speaking. This is why most "red-letter" Bibles have these words in red. Thus, it is Jesus who is calling Himself, "the Alpha and Omega" and "the Almighty" (Rev 21:5-7).
1. Luke 22:42 Jesus prays to the Father and submits His will to the Fatherís will. Thus, Jesus is separate from, and inferior to the Father.
Answer: The Trinity doctrine includes the idea of the Father and the Son being separate Persons with separate wills. And it is not a denial of essential equality for one person to submit to another. If it is, then women would be essentially inferior to men (Eph 5:22; but see Gal 3:28).
2. John 1:2 Jesus canít be "with God" and be God.
Answer: Jesus is "with" God as regards His Person; He is equal to God the Father as regards His essence (Heb 1:3). The distinction between "Person" and "essence" must always be remembered when discussing the Trinity. The doctrine teaches that God is "three Persons in one essence."
3. John 1:18 "No man has seen God at any time" but people have seen Jesus.
Answer: People have seen God (Gen 18; Exod 24:9-11; 33:11, 20). It is God the Father no one has seen (John 6:46). The O.T. appearances of God are more specifically appearances of God the Son (cp. John 12:41 with Isa 6:5).
4. John 14:28 Jesus states, "My Father is greater than I."
Answer: Indicates positional, not essential relationship. Or, Jesus is speaking from His human nature. Or, the result of the kenosis69 (Phil 2:8).
5. John 17:3 The Father is "the only true God" so Jesus canít be God.
Answers: The purpose of this statement was to deny polytheism, not to teach about Jesusí essential relationship to the Father. Note Jesusí statement in verse two about receiving "authority over all flesh." This all encompassing authority the Father could not give if He had rival gods.
Further, "The very juxtaposition here of Jesus Christ with the Father is a proof, by implication, of our Lordís Godhead. The knowledge of God and a creature could not be eternal life, and such an association of the one with the other would be inconceivable"70/1064
6. John 20:17 Jesus calls the Father "My God" so He canít be God Himself.
Answer: in Hebrews 1:8, the Father calls the Son "God", quoted from Psalm 45:6. Jesus also separated His Sonship from everyone elses. He said "My Father." John the Baptist said Jesus is God the Fatherís only son meaning of the essence of God, God Himself.
7. 1 Corinthians 11:3 "the head of Christ is God" - so the Father is superior to Christ.
Answer: The verse also says, "the head of woman is man." If this verse is teaching the Father is essentially superior to Christ, then men are superior to women (but see Gen 1:26f). "Headship" in this verse refers to positional distinctions, not essential relationships.
8. 1 Corinthians 15:28 The Son is subject to, and thus inferior to, the Father.
Answer: In Luke 2:51, Jesus is said to have been "subject" to His earthly parents, but in no way can Jesus be said to have been inferior to Joseph and Mary. In the same way, being subject to His heavenly Father does not mean Jesus is inferior to the Father. Positional, not essential relationships are being discussed in these verses (see also Eph 6:1-3; Col 3:20).
9. Revelation 3:14 "the beginning of the creation of God" means Jesus is the first created thing.
Answer: "beginning" is used three other times in the Revelation and each time it is used in a title referring to God and Him being the "Source" or "Ruler" of the creation (1:8; 21:6; 22:13), not that God had a beginning. This also contradicts the Bibleís teaching that God is from all eternity and that there was no god before or after Him. It also contradicts Isaiah 7:14, 9:6 and Micah 5:2 which state plainly that Jesus is from all eternity, the Father of eternity having no beginning, no end.